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ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst Sample Questions (Q54-Q59):

NEW QUESTION # 54
After an organization's financial system was moved to a cloud-hosted solution that allows single sign-on (SSO) for authentication purposes, data was compromised by an individual logged onto the local network using a compromised username and password. What authentication control would have MOST effectively prevented this situation?

  • A. Single-factor
  • B. Token-based
  • C. Multi-factor
  • D. Challenge handshake

Answer: C

Explanation:
Multi-factor authentication (MFA)would have been the most effective control to prevent data compromise in this scenario:
* Enhanced Security:MFA requires multiple authentication factors, such as a password (something you know) and a one-time code (something you have).
* Mitigates Credential Theft:Even if a username and password are compromised, an attacker would still need the second factor to gain access.
* SSO Integration:MFA can be seamlessly integrated with SSO to ensure robust identity verification.
* Example:A user logs in with a password and then confirms their identity using an authenticator app.
Incorrect Options:
* A. Challenge handshake:An outdated protocol for authentication, not as secure as MFA.
* C. Token-based:Often used as part of MFA but alone does not mitigate password theft.
* D. Single-factor:Only uses one method (e.g., a password), which is insufficient to protect against credential compromise.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 4, Section "Identity and Access Management," Subsection "Multi-Factor Authentication" - MFA is essential to prevent unauthorized access when credentials are compromised.


NEW QUESTION # 55
The Platform as a Service (PaaS) model is often used to support which of the following?

  • A. Efficient application development and management
  • B. Local on-premise management of products and services
  • C. Control over physical equipment running application developed In-house
  • D. Subscription-based pay peruse applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Platform as a Service (PaaS) model is primarily designed to provide a platform that supports the development, testing, deployment, and management of applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the underlying infrastructure. It offers developers a comprehensive environment with tools and libraries for application development, database management, and more.
* PaaS solutions typically include development frameworks, application hosting, version control, and integration capabilities.
* It abstracts the hardware and operating system layer, allowing developers to focus solely on building applications.
* PaaS is typically used for creating and managing web or mobile applications efficiently.
Incorrect Options:
* B. Local on-premise management of products and services:PaaS is a cloud-based model, not on- premise.
* C. Subscription-based pay per use applications:This characteristic aligns more with the Software as a Service (SaaS) model.
* D. Control over physical equipment running application developed In-house:This corresponds to Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) rather than PaaS.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 3, Section "Cloud Service Models", Subsection "Platform as a Service (PaaS)" - PaaS is designed to facilitate efficient application development and management by offering integrated environments for application lifecycle management.


NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following services would pose the GREATEST risk when used to permit access to and from the Internet?

  • A. File Transfer Protocol(FTP) on TCP 21
  • B. Server Message Block (5MB) on TCP 445
  • C. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) on TCP 3389
  • D. Domain Name Service (DNS) on UOP 53

Answer: C

Explanation:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)poses the greatest risk when exposed to the internet because:
* Common Attack Vector:Frequently targeted in brute-force attacks and ransomware campaigns.
* Privilege Escalation:If compromised, attackers can gain full control of the target system.
* Vulnerability History:RDP services have been exploited in numerous attacks (e.g., BlueKeep).
* Exploitation Risk:Directly exposing RDP to the internet without proper safeguards (like VPNs or MFA) is extremely risky.
Incorrect Options:
* A. SMB on TCP 445:Risky, but usually confined to internal networks.
* B. FTP on TCP 21:Unencrypted but less risky compared to RDP for remote control.
* C. DNS on UDP 53:Used for name resolution; rarely exploited for direct system access.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 5, Section "Remote Access Security," Subsection "RDP Risks" - Exposing RDP to the internet presents a critical security risk due to its susceptibility to brute-force and exploitation attacks.


NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following controls would BEST prevent an attacker from accessing sensitive data from files or disk images that have been obtained either physically or via the network?

  • A. Next generation antivirus
  • B. Encryption of data at rest
  • C. Data loss prevention (DLP)
  • D. Endpoint detection and response (EOR)

Answer: B

Explanation:
Encryption of data at restis the best control to protectsensitive data from unauthorized access, even if physical or network access to the disk or file is obtained.
* Protection:Data remains unreadable without the proper encryption keys.
* Scenarios:Protects data from theft due to lost devices or compromised servers.
* Compliance:Often mandated by regulations (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA).
Incorrect Options:
* A. Next-generation antivirus:Detects malware, not data protection.
* B. Data loss prevention (DLP):Prevents data exfiltration but does not protect data at rest.
* C. Endpoint detection and response (EDR):Monitors suspicious activity but does not secure stored data.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 6, Section "Data Security Strategies," Subsection "Encryption Techniques" - Encryption of data at rest is essential for protecting sensitive information.


NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the followingBESTdescribes static application security testing (SAST)?

  • A. Configuration management
  • B. Attack simulation
  • C. Vulnerability scanning
  • D. Codereview

Answer: D

Explanation:
Static Application Security Testing (SAST)involvesanalyzing source code or compiled codeto identify vulnerabilities without executing the program.
* Code Analysis:Identifies coding flaws, such asinjection, buffer overflows, or insecure function usage
.
* Early Detection:Can be integrated into the development pipeline to catch issues before deployment.
* Automation:Tools likeSonarQube, Checkmarx, and Fortifyare commonly used.
* Scope:Typically focuses on source code, bytecode, or binary code.
Other options analysis:
* A. Vulnerability scanning:Typically involves analyzing deployed applications or infrastructure.
* C. Attack simulation:Related to dynamic testing (e.g., DAST), not static analysis.
* D. Configuration management:Involves maintaining and controlling software configurations, not code analysis.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 9: Application Security Testing:Discusses SAST as a critical part of secure code development.
* Chapter 7: Secure Coding Practices:Highlights the importance of static analysis during the SDLC.


NEW QUESTION # 59
......

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